Romans 4/ Imputation of Justice

KJV Romans 4:1 What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? 2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.

Comment: or “he has a boast” – “but not to God”; Paul’s point is not to deny that Abraham was righteous by works, but to say that one should not boast to the One from whom one received the righteousness.

3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.

Comment: better “faithfully trusted God” --- God even counts loving him with trust as righteousness.

4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. Comment:

The reward here is “acquittal” and worketh refers to such things that might be done to demonstrate one’s innocence, or such maneuvers, theological or otherwise, that one might pull to compel God to justify one by obligating Him to do so (out of debt). Worketh refers to obligating God by a sense of debt or owedness to dismiss one’s case with a favorable verdict.
For instance, if someone supposed that God is required to dismiss the charges against his or her sin because they are legally ‘counted’ righteous, then this would be a procedure that would obligate God to dismiss the charges. That’s what Paul means by “debt”. It would not be by grace or forgiveness, but by a legal procedure that compelled God to make a finding of innocence.

5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.

Comment:
The translation is faulty here. I will fix it in a minute. But first, we must note that the biblical context shows that “worketh not” here does not mean one who abstains from doing righteous works by works. Rather, it means one who abstains from trying to work a deal with God so that God will declare one as perfectly righteous and dismiss one as guiltless. How this is done can take any of the infinite variety of methods by which mankind has sought to receive the declaration of being a good person from God so that they do not have to face the judgement.

Translation:
But to him that worketh not, but faithfully trusts on him that does justice to the ungodly, His faithfulness is counted for justice.

The last phrase, or “His commitment is counted for justice”, and this means Yeshua’s commitment to the cross, dying in our place, is counted as God’s justice having been done to us. Like Hab. 2:4, Paul could be ambiguous here, meaning also that our faithfulness is counted for righteousness --- provided that we do not pervert it as a means of seeking an acquittal with God!

On “does justice to the ungodly”. I finally received my book, “Iustitia Dei” by Alister E McGrath. McGrath writes, “In its classical usage, ‘dikaioun’ with a personal object almost invariably seems to be applied to someone whose cause is unjust, and thus bears the meaning of ‘to do justice to’ – i.e., ‘to punish’.” (pg. 12). McGrath shows how the LXX usage was unusual and influenced by Hebrew and that the average Greek would find it perplexing. However, Paul was a native Greek speaker writing to Greeks. There is no reason for him not to use the term in its normal Greek sense, “to do justice to”; I do however, think Paul imported some of the Hebrew idea, “to bring to justice” or “justiced” i.e. the concept of God’s making us just is also in Paul’s context, but this relates to sanctification and is a process that only completes with the resurrection of the dead.

6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,

Translation, “Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God reckons justice without works”;

Paul turns Gen. 15:6 around here in the context of the cross. Messiah died in our place satisfying the Father’s justice. Since it is substitutionary, God counts that justice has been done to us in Messiah! This indeed, is the only way to see this text, because ‘righteousness’ always requires works. The word ‘dikaiousune’ also means ‘justice’ (actually, it is the 1st definition in BDAG), so we ought to try that first in the context – well it works nicely. There is no need to go to def. 2 and introduce the oxymoron of ‘righteousness without works’; The word ‘righteousness’ can stand only if it is conceived of as meaning God’s righteousness – His righteous treatment of us by judging us in Messiah.

7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.

Comment: This is the context. The answer must explain forgiveness. If the sinner is found guilty, then he can be forgiven his sins. But if the sinner is ‘justified’ (declared righteous) then forgiveness makes no sense.



8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.

Comment: better, “to whom the Lord will not ponder sin” (see BDAG). Why have I put this so? Because God sees us as we are. However, when He forgives us, he does not dwell on our sin the way he ponders it concerning the wicked. This is a case where the Hebrew sense of HASHAV is important to the context, and not so much a legal accounting term.

9 Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness.

Or, “faithfulness was counted to Abraham for righteousness/justice”; This can be viewed as Messiah’s faithfulness to the cross resulting in a pardon (justice is done) as well as Abraham’s personal faith. Once again, as in Hab. 2:4, Paul has drawn from both sides of the ambiguity!

Your comments/questions welcomed!